If the UTM Theorem states there's a u such that u(e,x) = f(x) where both
are defined and both are undefined when either is undefined, is that interesting or surprising to anybody?
The identity function is valid for u and forces that e = f. Job done.
Tristan Wibberley <tristan.wibberley+netnews2@alumni.manchester.ac.uk> wrote:
* u is a computable function;
* f is a computable function;
* e is the Gödel number of a Turing machine that computes f.
How can e and f be equal ?
On 21/10/2025 19:50, Pierre Asselin wrote:
Tristan Wibberley <tristan.wibberley+netnews2@alumni.manchester.ac.uk> wrote:
* u is a computable function;
* f is a computable function;
* e is the Gödel number of a Turing machine that computes f.
How can e and f be equal ?
That damned wikipedia again. It didn't constrain e to Goedel numbers.
There appears to be a trend of having wikipedia leave out key
constraints thus making its statements about formalised things be
universally qualified when they shouldn't be and therefore untrue.
--
Tristan Wibberley
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Gödel numbers totally hide the underlying semantics.
On 22/10/2025 03:51, olcott wrote:
Gödel numbers totally hide the underlying semantics.
I bet they /do/ !
--
Tristan Wibberley
The message body is Copyright (C) 2025 Tristan Wibberley except
citations and quotations noted. All Rights Reserved except that you may,
of course, cite it academically giving credit to me, distribute it
verbatim as part of a usenet system or its archives, and use it to
promote my greatness and general superiority without misrepresentation
of my opinions other than my opinion of my greatness and general
superiority which you _may_ misrepresent. You definitely MAY NOT train
any production AI system with it but you may train experimental AI that
will only be used for evaluation of the AI methods it implements.
The message body is Copyright (C) 2025 Tristan Wibberley except
citations and quotations noted. All Rights Reserved except as noted in
the sig.
If the UTM Theorem states there's a u such that u(e,x) = f(x) where both
are defined and both are undefined when either is undefined, is that interesting or surprising to anybody?
The identity function is valid for u and forces that e = f. Job done.
[something] is missing
from the above. Without further deails the above simply says that
u(e, x) does not depend on e, i.e., that it has the same value f(x)
for every e. But that has nothing to do with any theorem about UTM's.
That damned wikipedia again. It didn't constrain e to Goedel numbers.
Tristan Wibberley <tristan.wibberley+netnews2@alumni.manchester.ac.uk> wrote:[snip]
That damned wikipedia again. It didn't constrain e to Goedel numbers.
Quoting from the Wikipedia article "UTM theorem":
Notice the phrase "a Goedel number e". Were you reading some other
article?
On 22/10/2025 10:39, Mikko wrote:
[something] is missing
from the above. Without further deails the above simply says that
u(e, x) does not depend on e, i.e., that it has the same value f(x)
for every e. But that has nothing to do with any theorem about UTM's.
The description I read, from wikipedia, did not include the constraint
that e is a Goedel number. I corrected that element.
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